What does θεόπνευστος (inspired by God) actually mean?

I’ve been thinking a lot lately about this passage of NT Scripture. And it seems to be that it is not as clear as I once took it to be. There are numerous questions that have come to mind, each of which deserves a well thought out, well researched and, as much as possible, objective response. Simply, "It means what it says," is not an answer, because the following questions are an effort to try to better understand exactly what it says. I will be work on the responses, but here are some of the questions that can, rightfully, be asked.

“All scripture is inspired by God and is useful for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, so that everyone who belongs to God may be proficient, equipped for every good work.” (2 Tim 3:16-17 NRSV)

“πᾶσα γραφὴ θεόπνευστος καὶ ὠφέλιμος πρὸς διδασκαλίαν, πρὸς ἐλεγμόν, πρὸς ἐπανόρθωσιν, πρὸς παιδείαν τὴν ἐν δικαιοσύνῃ, ἵνα ἄρτιος ᾖ ὁ τοῦ θεοῦ ἄνθρωπος, πρὸς πᾶν ἔργον ἀγαθὸν ἐξηρτισμένος.} (2 Timothy 3:16–17 AGNT)

Notice that in the above caption, the person who wrote this equated "all Scripture" with the Bible when, in fact, "the Bible" as a collection of at least 66 individual "books" did not exist. Substituting "the Bible" for "all Scripture" in this passage is known as an "anachronism" -- definition: a person, thing, or idea that exists out of its time in history, especially one that happened or existed later than the period being shown, discussed.

1. What is “all scripture”? What books/texts/traditions does “all scripture” include at the time that 2 Timothy was written (conservatively in the mid-60s CE; less conservatively in the late 1st c. CE or early 2nd c. CE)

• The canon of the OT was probably not really solidified until the later part of the 1st c. or early 2nd c. CE. 
• Even then, who chose those texts? Were they the same for the Jews as for the Christians?
• For the NT, the canon was in great flux and the source of much disagreement until the end of the 4th c. CE.

2. What does “inspired” or “God-breathed” really mean? This is the only use of θεόπνευστος in the NT. Does it mean “inerrant”? Does it mean “verbal, plenary”? How can we know?

3. What are the other uses of γραφὴ, which literally means “writing,” in the rest of the NT? What did the authors of the NT books understand “the scriptures” to be?

4. What are the references to γραφὴ in the Hebrew Bible? What do these references tell us about what the authors of these books understood “the scriptures” to be?

5. Can we say with confidence that “all scripture” is equivalent to every word contained with the 39 OT books and the 27 NT books of the Protestant Bible? Is it every word of these 66 books is θεόπνευστος? And, if so, what does it mean that God breathed these writings?

6. What about the other books of the Pseudepigrapha and/or Apocrypha, some of which the early Christians, some NT authors and the early Church Fathers regarded as “scripture”?

7. Does “all scripture is God-breathed” necessarily mean that every word of the 66 books books of the Protestant Bible come to us directly from God through the authors will absolute perfection and that they have been accurately and perfectly preserved and are accurately translated into the hundreds of languages over the centuries?

It is not that God couldn’t do any or all of the above in any way he chose, but rather the questions of whether or not he did that and how, remain, for me unclear. These are the questions, however, that I plan to respond to in future posts.